Pacifica55 wrote:
So, how does that differ from a conventional loan?
It gives him lower payments. He is not forced to pay any principal. It gives him a little more flexibility.
Pacifica55 wrote:
His loan readjusts in five years and he is betting that he will be able to refinance or sell at that time. With tighter money, he may not be able to refinance at all and he may also be hard pressed to find a buyer unless he bought it under value. That means he may be locked into a contract that he can't afford and that is virtually endless with no payoff.
All of the above are bets that borrowers have already been taking for the last few decades (I'm 45 so can't go back too too far). ARMs have been an option for a very long time. The only different between the new interest only ARM is that you aren't forced to pay any principal.
Pacifica55 wrote:
With a fixed 30 year loan, he could still pay additional money anytime he wants and he would be building equity in the property.
Look at it this way. In 5 years, even if he is forced to pay principal (has a 30yr fixed), he really hasn't put the slightest dent in a 400,000 loan. He really hasn't built much equality. Unless the market is going nuts like before, historically, equality is built over the very very long term. However, just keep in mind that he can still build equality with his interest only loan by paying additional amounts - it is up to him, it is his future, his plan (different motives for different people).
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Also, about "conventional" loans. My understanding without wiki is that a conventional loan is any loan amount less than 417,000 and nonconventional loans are loans that exceed 417,000. An interest only loan can be conventional or nonconventional, it just depends on the loan amount.