LionKing wrote:
Bilko wrote:
Rank............................. Per capita income
79.... Costa Rica................. 9,040
100.. Dominican Republic... 6,210
There are other factors involved, I'm sure, but that one is the one that explains it best to my mind. We like to think it's about sex, but it's about poverty.
Number 3 U.S.A. $37,500 In reality I find that hard to believe with unemployment near record levels.
We can quibble about the measurement methods which may shift the rankings a bit (as Bilko himself conceded, there are other factors involved), however his basic point remains perfectly valid whatever those exact numbers might be. The US has a vastly higher per capita income than either of those other countries and, even more significantly, a vastly more even distribution of income. Jazz's complaints about overpaid CEO's may be perfectly valid but income inequality is still far worse in these developing countries. And, while CR is poor, the Dom. Rep. is significantly poorer still. It is only natural and logical to conclude that must be a huge factor driving desperately poor Domicanas to offer P4P services at even lower rates than their sisters in CR.
Now, if you really want to discuss relative income levels, measurement methods, and the relative distribution of that income, well then that is really a different issue. It might have helped if Bilko or LionKing had cited their source along with their numbers. Typically, the simplest way to measure per capita income is to take national GDP (or GNP, which is slightly different but I won't get into that here) and to divide that by the number of people in that country. As LK and Jazz pointed out this simple way of measuring can be misleading. There are several reasons for that, but I'll just discuss 2 of them.
The first problem wasn't mentioned by LK or Jazz but does bear some relevance to our discussion. Simple GDP per capita ignores what is known as Purchasing Power Parity (or PPP) by economists. What this means is that things don't cost the same in every country. For example, Luxembourg by any measure has the highest GDP per capita of any country in the world. Unfortunately for them, it is also an expensive place to live. Just try buying a Big Mac in some of these high GDP per capita countries for the same as what it costs in the US
BigMac Index. If you factor PPP in it usually flattens the field considerably. The problem with measuring GDP per capita at PPP is the same as measuring inflation such as the CPI in a country. It all depends on what you use as your market basket. No one lives on Big Macs alone. The Dom. Rep. has a GDP roughly 1/6th that of the US or 2/3rds that of CR. Does that mean everything will cost 1/6th or 2/3rds what it costs in those other countries? Obviously not. The cost of gasoline and anything else that needs to be imported are obvious examples where local costs are not only not proportionally less but might even wind up costing even more than it is in the far wealthier US. Bottom line for us is that while P4P may be less in the Dom Rep than either CR or the US, that doesn't mean it will be a direct relationship. In fact, I think it would be very interesting to come up with a relative cost index of P4P similar to that Big Mac Index and rank various countries on that basis (average cost of 1hr of P4P divided by average GDP per capita). I think the results might surprise some people.
The second problem with those average GDP per capita measures is the one that LK and Jazz were referring to. It ignores the problem of uneven distribution of income. One way of reducing this issue is to use the MEDIAN rather than the MEAN (or average) income. With the mean, a few CEO's making $50M or more can really skew the results. In contrast it would take 1000's of people making $10K to even begin to offset those fat cat's effect on the overall average. With the median, you look at the level of income where exactly half the population makes more and the other half makes less. It doesn't matter at all if those in the top half are making $50K or $50M.
The problem here is that the median numbers that we need are a little harder to come by. The census usually looks at median HOUSEHOLD income or the median individual income for WORKERS OVER 18. So lacking comparable median figures it is hard to judge the accuracy of LK's $37,500 average figure. What I was able to find was 2004 mean and median figures for household income. According to
Wiki: "Overall, the mean household income in the United States, according to the US Census Bureau 2004 Economic Survey, was $60,528, or $17,210 (39.73%) higher than the median household income."
Of course, 2004 is 4 years old and pre-dates the recent market collapse, however, despite what it might seem, real GDP (inflation adjusted) is still higher than it was in 2004 and income inequality, while it may be a bit worse recently, is not a new phenomenon (
source). It actually had been increasing steadily since the Reagan Revolution and so-called "Trickle Down Economics" of the early 80's and if anything has leveled off over the last few years.
What does this mean for our discussion? Well, 2 things. First, that there are a lot of really high income households that are inflating the average considerably. And, secondly, the median household income of $33,318 (which is pretty close to that original $37,500 figure) is most likely still significantly more than the average in either CR or the DR (where income inequality is even worse than the US)
One last piece of interesting statistics. Relative income inequality among different countries. Income inequality is commonly measured by something called the Gini Coefficient which is based on a scale of 0 to 1 with 0 representing complete equality of income and 1 meaning that 1 guy has all the money. On that measure, the US ranks pretty poorly among industrial countries but is still much better than most developing countries like CR and the Dom. Rep. Again, according to
wiki and based on Gini (for the countries where that figure is available), the top (most income equal) country on their list is Denmark at .247. The US comes out 73rd on that list at .408 behind countries like Bangladesh and Ghana. And Costa Rica is 100th at .498 and the Dom. Rep. is 108th at .516. The fact that so many 3rd world countries ranked better than the US even surprised me, however it should be pointed out that the footnotes to that table did say that differences in how statistics were collected in different countries limits the comparability of the results. Still, I found it fairly interesting and hope some of you did too.
------
BTW, Jazz, income and compensation are essentially the same thing. If you don't believe me then just ask Tom Daschle now whether his use of a car was income or compensation. What most people usually discuss seperately and which ARE really different things is SALARY and TOTAL COMPENSATION. CEO salaries can be truly obscene but where most of them really make their "compensation" is on such things as bonuses, stock options, use of the company jet for expense paid vacations, etc.. All of that TOGETHER makes up TOTAL COMPENSATION and TAXABLE INCOME (assuming they don't find some write-off, tax loophole or way to defer it).